CCNA 2015

1. How long is an IPv6 address?

Answers:

• 64

• 32

• 124

• 128

2. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?

Answers:

• 5

• 2

• 1

• 12

3. How are frame relay virtual circuits Identified?

Answers:

• VPI

• MAC

• DLCI

• CIR

• SPID

4. Which layer in the OSI model provides error checking?

Answers:

• Presentation

• Data-Link

• Transport

• Physical

• Session

5. How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?

Answers:

• 1

• 12

• 3

• 4

6. How does a bridge function?

Answers:

• It passes packets outside of its network segment if its IP address cannot be found on its table

• It maintains a table of the IP address of the host connected to its internet segment

• It looks up the frames destination in its address table and sends the frame towards the destination

• It maintains the table of the data link layer and network layer addresses for the host connected to its network segment

7. How many subnets and usable hosts are in the network 198.25.75.8.0/29?

Answers:

• 32 subnets, 8 hosts

• 128 subnets, 2 hosts

• 6 subnets, 32 hosts

• 6 subnets, 30 hosts

• 32 subnets, 6 hosts

8. From which IP address class can 15 bits be borrowed to create subnets?

Answers:

• A

• C

• E

• B

• D

9. Which information must a router have in order to perform proper and efficient routing?

Answers:

• Number of other packets in a single flow of data

• Destination application of an incoming packet

• Destination network address of an incoming packet

• Number of routers that know a path to the destination

10. what is one benefit of PVST+?

Answers:

• PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimize.

• PVST+ supports layer3 load balancing without loops.

• PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN

• PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.

11. What command will display the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an interface?

Answers:

• show interface

• sh pvc

• sho runn

• show frame-relay pvc

12. Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?

Answers:

• 192.168.168.129–190

• 192.168.168.129–199

• 192.168.168.128–194

• 192.168.168.128–190

13. Calculate the number of usable networks and usable hosts for the network 210.106.14.0/24.

Answers:

• 6 networks with 30 hosts

• 1 network with 254 hosts

• 2 networks with 128 hosts

• 4 networks with 64 hosts

14. A routing table contains static, RIP, and IGRP routes for the same destination network. Which route would normally be used to forward data?

Answers:

• The RIP route

• The static route

• All three will load balance

• The IGRP route

15. What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow many users to connect to the global Internet?

Answers:

• Static

• Still

• NAT

• PAT

16. What is the administrative distance of OSPF?

Answers:

• 120

• 100

• 170

• 90

• 110

17. Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?

Answers:

• show ip interface

• show all access-lists

• show interface

• show access-lists

18. Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?

Answers:

• line aux

• line con

• line vty

• line telnet

19. What is the connection-oriented protocol in the TCP/IP protocol stack?

Answers:

• OSPF

• DNS

• IP

• UDP

• TCP

20. What device hosts a different subnet on each interface

Answers:

• Hub

• Router

• Switch

21. What is the distance limitation for 100BaseT?

Answers:

• 25 meters

• 1000 feet

• 607 feet

• 185 meters

• 100 meters

22. When designing a switch internetwork, one important consideration is the physical cabling distance. What is the maximum allowable distance of the 100BaseTX standard?

Answers:

• 10 m

• 1000 m

• 95 m

• 100 m

• 50 m

23. What does the Frame Relay switch use to distinguish between each PVC connection?

Answers:

• Data link connection identifier (DLCIs)

• CNs

• FECNs

• Local management interface LMI

24. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?

Answers:

• Physical layer

• Outer layer

• Inner layer

• Session layer

25. Which protocol does Ping use?

Answers:

• ICMP

• BootP

• TCP

• ARP

26. What protocol resolves IP addresses to MAC address?

Answers:

• NAT

• TCP

• ARP

• RIP

• UDP

27. Routers that have flash memory typically have preloaded copy of Cisco IOS software. Which command should you use to make backup copy of the software image onto a network server?

Answers:

• Write Backup TFTP

• Copy backup 2 (server-name)

• Write Backup (server-name)

• Save Copy TFTP

• Copy Flash TFTP

28. Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default?

Answers:

• C

• A

• B and C

• B

29. Which command sets IGRP as the routing protocol for autonomous system 100?

Answers:

• Router(config)# enable igrp 100

• Router(config)# igrp 100

• Router(config)# router igrp 100

• Router(config)# network 100

30. What does the command - routerA(config)#line cons 0 - allow you to perform next?

Answers:

• Unleash the hounds

• Shut down the router

• Disable console connections

• Set the Telnet password

• Set your console password

31. What is the extension of cisco IOS file?

Answers:

• .tar

• .csco

• .scr

• .exe

• .bin

32. Which WLAN IEEE specification allows up to 54Mbps at 2.4GHz?

Answers:

• G

• R

• F

• A

33. DCLI is to frame relay as MAC is to:

Answers:

• LCI

• None of these

• Ethernet

• PVC

34. Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?

Answers:

• You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain

• VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain

• VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches

• VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are allowed

35. What is the bit length and expression form of a MAC address?

Answers:

• 24 bits expression as a hexadecimal number

• 24 bits expression as a decimal number

• 36 bits expression as a binary number

• 48 bits expression as a hexadecimal number

• 48 bits expression as a decimal number

36. Which network protocol does DNS use?

Answers:

• FTP

• UDP

• TFTP

• (all of these)

• SCP

37. In practical IPv6 application, The encapsulation of IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets is called what?

Answers:

• tunneling

• NAT

• hashing

• routing

38. What was the key reason the International Organization for Standardization released the OSI model?

Answers:

• The network administrator could increase the overall speed of their network

• Different vendors networks could work with each other

• The industry could create a standard for how computers work

• Users could access network server faster

39. While performing the password recovery procedure on your 2500 series Cisco router, you type in the following command.  o/r0x2142  What is the purpose of this command?

Answers:

• It is used to save the changes to the configuration

• It is used to restart the router

• It is used to bypass the configuration in NVRAM

• It is used to enter ROM Monitor mode

• It is used to view the lost password

40. What is the default administrative distance for a static route to a next-hop address?

Answers:

• 20

• 0

• 1

• 90

• 5

41. An Ethernet term used to describe a network collection of devices in which one particular device sends a packet on a network segment and forces all other devices on that same segment to pay attention to it is called a:

Answers:

• Window

• Three-way handshake

• Collision domain

• Hop count

42. Routing protocols can be generally classified into distance-vector or link-state. Each method has its own advantages and disadvantages. Which of the following routing protocol takes the benefits of both methods?

Answers:

• OSPF

• EIGRP

• IGRP

• RIP

• IS-IS

43. Which statement about switched and routed data flow is correct?

Answers:

• Switches create separate collision domains but a single broadcast domain. Routers provide a separate broadcast domains

• Switches create separate collision domains and separate broadcast domains. Routers provide separate collision domains

• Switches create a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain. Routers provide separate broadcast domains

• Switches create a single collision domain and a separate broadcast domain. Router provides a separate broadcast domain as well

44. Which command enables directly connected network 199.55.72.0 to be used by RIP?

Answers:

• Router(Config-router)# network 199.55.0.0

• Router(Config)# rip 199.55.0.0

• Router(Config-router)# rip 199.55.72.0

• Router(Config-router)# network 199.55.72.0

45. Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

Answers:

• C. 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65

• A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66

• D. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

• B. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77

46. What does a VLAN do?

Answers:

• Acts as the fastest port to all servers

• Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port

• Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain

• Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork

47. What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

Answers:

• Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.

• It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

• Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.

• Only the enable password will be encrypted.

48. If user response drops as a network continues to grow, what should you do?

Answers:

• Block the most inactive IP addresses

• Segment the network

• Upgrade to a newer switch

• Create a new broadcast domain

49. What command can you type to view the connections after telneting into multiple routers simultaneously?

Answers:

• sh sessions

• sh ports

• sh connections

• sh host

• sh users

50. What is a stub network?

Answers:

• A network with more than one exit point

• A network that has only one entry and exit point

• A network with more than one exit and entry point

• A network with only one entry and no exit point

51. Which parameter must be supplied when initializing the IGRP routing process?

Answers:

• Connected network numbers

• An autonomous system number

• A registered administrative id

• An IP address mask

• Metric weights

52. What does the 'passive' command provide to the RIP dynamic routing protocol?

Answers:

• Stops an interface from sending or receiving periodic dynamic updates

• Stops the router from sending any dynamic updates

• Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but not from receiving updates

• Stops the router from receiving any dynamic updates

53. what factor determines the OSPF router ID.

Answers:

• The highest IP address of any Loop Back Interface

• The lowest IP address of any logical interface

• The lowest IP address of any physical interface.

• The highest IP address of any Physical Interface

54. Which of the following is a process of putting a packet for a destination network not having an entry in the routing table, on to the next hop router?

Answers:

• Static Routing

• Dynamic Routing

• Double Routing

• Default routing

55. What layer in the OSI model is responsible for data segmentation?

Answers:

• Data Link

• Physical

• Transport

• Network

56. If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, what would you type?

Answers:

• delete nvram

• erase nvram

• erase running

• erase startup

57. What is the role of a destination port number?

Answers:

• To track different conversations and distinct services.

• To address the network devices.

• To allow or forbid network access.

• To assign priorities to services.

58. Which router component stores routing tables, ARP cache, and packet buffers?

Answers:

• RAM

• ROM

• Flash memory

• NVRAM

59. Which of the following key factors are categorized as metrics?

Answers:

• Bandwidth

• All of these

• Hops

• Ticks

60. Which router command allows you to determine whether an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?

Answers:

• show ip interface

• show access list

• show access interface

• show ip list

61. Your Ethernet network, 172.30.1.0, shuts down. Which update message is seen in your router's debug IP rip output regarding that network?

Answers:

• subnet 172.30.1.0, metric 16

• subnet 172.30.1.0, metric 0

• subnet 172.30.1.0, metric 15

• subnet 172.30.1.0, metric 1

62. A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20684570. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 852. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?

Answers:

• the RIPv2 route

• the OSPF route

• the EIGRP route

• all three routes

• OSPF and RIPv2 routes

63. You want to verify the configuration register entry of a Cisco 2500 series router.  What command would you use on the router?

Answers:

• show running-config

• show register

• show version

• show flash

• show config-reg

64. During encapsulation in which order is information packaged?

Answers:

• Packet, Data, Segment, Frame

• Data, Packet, Segment, Frame

• Segment, Data, Packet, Frame

• Data, Segment, Packet, Frame

65. What is the difference between a bridge and a switch?

Answers:

• A bridge is ASIC based and a switch is software based

• A bridge is RISC based and a switch is ASIC based

• A bridge is software based and a switch is CISC based

• A bridge is software based and a switch is ASIC based

66. Which command displays the interfaces using a given access list?

Answers:

• Show active list

• Show interface parameters

• Show access-list interfaces

• Show IP interface

• Configure IP access list

67. Which network mask should you place on a class C address to accommodate a user requirement for five networks with a maximum of 17 hosts on each network?

Answers:

• 255.255.255.224

• 255.255.255.192

• 255.255.255.240

• 255.255.255.248

68. Link Access Procedure, Balanced (LAPB), is the protocol designed to ensure that the frames are error-free and properly sequenced in what type of network?

Answers:

• None of these

• Internet

• X.25

• ARPANET

69. In the IPv6 address structure, how many bits are included in each field?

Answers:

• 64

• 128

• 24

• 4

• 16

70. You work as a network technician for smarterer and are responsible for this network.  You have chosen WPA over WEP in the wireless network.  What is one reason why WPA is preferred over WEP?

Answers:

• A WPA key is longer and requires more special characters than the WEP key

• WPA key values remain the same until the client configuration is changed.

• The access point and the client are manually configured with different WPA key values

• The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used

71. What is an advantage of local area network LAN segmentation?

Answers:

• Elimination of broadcast

• Smaller collision domains

• Larger number of users within the same domain

• Decrease cost of implementation

72. A switch has been configured with two vlans and is connected to a router with a trunk for inter-vlan routing. OSPF has been configured on the router,as the routing protocol for the network. Which statement about this network is true?

Answers:

• Direct inter-vlan communication does not require OSPF.

• OSPF cannot be used if router-on-a-stick is configured on the router.

• For the two vlans to communicate,a network statement for the trunk interface needs to be added to the OSPF configuration.

• For the two vlans to communicate,a network statement for each subinterface needs to be added to the OSPF configuration.

73. For a window size of 3, the ack4 signal will say to send the _____ packet.

Answers:

• 2nd

• 3rd

• 4th

• None of these

74. True or False? MAC addresses are the feature of the physical layer.

Answers:

• True

• False

75. Which device is commonly used as Data Terminal Equipment?

Answers:

• Modem

• ISDN

• CSU/DSU

• router

76. A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of physical network?

Answers:

• broadcast multi-access

• point-to-point

• broadcast point-to-multipoint

• nonbroadcast multi-access

• nonbroadcast multipoint

77. What PPP protocol provides for dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?

Answers:

• HDLC

• NCP

• X.25

• LCP

78. What Protocol Does PPP use to identify the Network layer protocol?

Answers:

• X.25

• ISDN

• NCP

• LCP

79. If a router receives an OSPF external and EIGRP external route for the same prefix, which route will be installed in the routing table.

Answers:

• BOTH

• NONE

• OSPF

• Depends on the age of the route

• EIGRP

80. What does the term ‘Base’ refer to in 100BaseT?

Answers:

• Speed category

• Spectrum used

• Cabling type

• 100 mode type

• Signaling type

81. What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

Answers:

• B. to map a known DLCI to a MAC address

• E. to map a known IP address to a SPID

• To map a known DLCI to an IP address

• C. to map a known MAC address to an IP address

• A. to map a known IP address to a MAC address

82. When you issue the command "Show Version," your router returns: “Configuration register is 0x0101” From where does the router boot?

Answers:

• FLASH

• A TFTP server

• NVRAM

• ROM

83. What is the maximum number of subnets that can be assigned to networks when using the address 172.16.0.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0? (Assume older version UNIX workstations are in use.)

Answers:

• 30

• 16

• It is an invalid subnet mask for the Network

• 32

• 14

84. Which layer of OSI does Switches operate ?

Answers:

• Network Layer

• Data Link Layer

• Physical Layer

• Session Layer

• Transport Layer

85. How often are BPDUs sent from a layer 2 device?

Answers:

• Always

• Every 10 minutes

• Every 2 minutes

• Every 2 seconds

86. Which of these are NOT included in the lower layer of the OSI model?

Answers:

• Application

• Physical

• Network

• Data Link

87. Which is a valid ipv6 loopback Addresse?

Answers:

• FE00:/12

• FF00::/10

• ::1

• 2000::/3

88. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts?

Answers:

• ARP

• TCP

• ICMP

• BootP

89. Which IOS command is used to configure encapsulation for a PPP serial link on a Cisco Router?

Answers:

• ip encapsulation ppp

• encapsulation ip ppp

• encapsulation ppp-synch

• encapsulation ppp

90. The RSTP provides which new port role?

Answers:

• Enabled

• Discarding

• Disabled

• Forwarding

91. Which attribute is unique to Cisco's implementation of BGP?

Answers:

• Local-Preference

• MED

• AS-Path

• Weight

92. From the seven OSI layers, which layer is responsible for error recovery and reliability?

Answers:

• (all of these)

• Session

• Application

• Network layer

• Data-Link

93. What is the primary advantage of both bridging and switching?

Answers:

• Upper layer protocol transparency

• Bridging and switching have different advantages

• Lower layer protocol transparency

• Encryption

94. Three access points have been installed and configured to cover a small office.  What term defines the wireless topology?

Answers:

• BSS

• ESS

• IBSS

• SSID